CCSK Practice Cloud Security Alliance Verified Answers - Pass Your Exams For Sure! [2022]
Valid Way To Pass Cloud Security Knowledge's CCSK Exam
Difficulty in Writing Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam
The Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) exam is an open book exam. It may be an open-book, but don't underestimate this exam's complexity. The passing rate is 62% for this exam. We find that, depending on their experience, there is no one place where students struggle most. Someone in that segment who has never worked in network security will struggle more while the network security engineer will struggle . As this offers an overview of each of these regions, the best way to plan is to review the CSA Guidance.
Learning everything and then dropping all of it after the exam is over. The cloud travels rapidly, and you have to keep up with it. Just the beginning of your cloud protection journey should be the CCSK. This exam requires lots of practice to complete on time and for writing accurate solutions. Take a deep look into the exam contents and follow the official training courses mentioned in the “How to study for this exam” section of this document. After taking the online courses, study the CCSk exam dumps pdf properly and then test your knowledge and skills by taking the CCSK practice exams before appearing for the actual exam.
These practices are intended to produce better preparatory content in such away. This will ensure that the exam is clear with the right focus and the correct material for training. TroytecDumps have the most up-to-date CCSK exam dumps, with the aid of these dump aspirants, getting a good understanding of the question pattern being asked in real certification. The military experts check certification-question for all of the adjustments in the course. TroytecDumps often require testing of practice, which proves to be an excellent forum for testing the knowledge collected. To view the study materials, refer to the links below.
What is the duration, language, and format of the Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) Exam
- Time Allowed: 90 minutes
- Passing score: 80%
- Format: Multiple Choice Questions
- Number of questions: 60
- Language of Exam: English, Spanish
Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Foundation Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Legal Issues, Contracts and Electronic Discovery | -Legal Frameworks Governing Data Protection and Privacy
-Contracts and Provider Selection
-Electronic Discovery
|
| Management Plane and Business Continuity | -Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery in the Cloud -Architect for Failure -Management Plane Security |
| Data Security and Encryption | -Data Security Controls -Cloud Data Storage Types -Managing Data Migrations to the Cloud -Securing Data in the Cloud |
| Infrastructure Security | -Cloud Network Virtualization -Security Changes With Cloud Networking -Challenges of Virtual Appliances -SDN Security Benefits -Micro-segmentation and the Software Defined Perimeter -Hybrid Cloud Considerations -Cloud Compute and Workload Security |
| Cloud Computing Concepts and Architectures | -Definitions of Cloud Computing
-Cloud Security Scope, Responsibilities, and Models |
| Compliance and Audit Management | -Compliance in the Cloud
-Audit Management in the Cloud
|
| Governance and Enterprise Risk Management | -Tools of Cloud Governance -Enterprise Risk Management in the Cloud -Effects of various Service and Deployment Models -Cloud Risk Trade-offs and Tools |
| Related Technologies | -Big Data -Internet of Things -Mobile -Serverless Computing |
| Information Governance | -Governance Domains -Six phases of the Data Security Lifecycle and their key elements -Data Security Functions, Actors and Controls |
| Identity, Entitlement, and Access Management | -IAM Standards for Cloud Computing -Managing Users and Identities -Authentication and Credentials -Entitlement and Access Management |
| Virtualization and Containers | -Mayor Virtualizations Categories -Network -Storage -Containers |
NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following Standards define "Application Security Management Process" (ASMP)?
- A. ISO 27036-1
- B. ISO 27038-1
- C. ISO 27034-1
- D. ISO 27032-1
Answer: C
Explanation:
The International Organization for Standardization(ISO) has developed and published ISO/ IECN27034-1,
"Information Technology, eSecurity Techniques, eApplication Security, IS0/ IEC27034-1 defines concepts, frameworks, and processes to help organizations integrate security within their software development lifecycle.
NEW QUESTION 14
One of the primary benefits of the cloud is the ability to perform dynamic allocation of physical resources when required. The most common approach is a multi-tenant environment. However, it increases risk of disclosure of customer dat a. This can happen because of which of the following?
- A. No disaster recovery plan
- B. Tenancy termination
- C. Increased DDoS
- D. Isolation Failure
Answer: D
Explanation:
All resources allocated to a particular tenant should be "isolated" and protected to avoid disclosure of information to other tenants For example, when allocated storage is no longer needed IIS Security Considerations for Cloud Computing by a client it can be freely reallocated to another enterprise. ln that case, sensitive data could be disclosed if the storage has not been scrubbed thoroughly(e.g, using forensic software).
NEW QUESTION 15
According to ENISA(European Network and Information Security Agency) document on Security risk and recommendation. Isolation Failure is:
- A. Management Risk
- B. Organizational Risk
- C. Technical Risk
- D. Compliance Risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
Isolation failure is defined as:
Multi-tenancy and shared resources are two of the defining characteristics of cloud computing environments. Computing capacity, storage, and network are shared between multiple users. This class of risks includes the failure of mechanisms separating storage, memory, routing, and even reputation between different tenants of the shared infrastructure(e.g, so-called guest-hopping attacks, SQL injection attacks exposing multiple customers' data stored in the same table, and side channel attacks).
NEW QUESTION 16
Insufficient Identity. Credential and Access Management can lead to which of the following?
- A. Tampering with Data
- B. Spoofing Identity
- C. All of the above
- D. Information Disclosure
Answer: C
Explanation:
Sufficient Identity and Access Management practice should be followed in cloud environment.
Weakness in Identity, Credential and Access Management can lead to all types of threats as a compromised credential opens door to complete internal infrastructure.
NEW QUESTION 17
Which of the following will not be provided by cloud services when requested by the customer?
- A. DLP solution results
- B. SIEM logs
- C. Details of security controls
- D. Geographical locations of the datacentre
Answer: C
Explanation:
The cloud service provider will not provide the details of security controls as it will harm the security of its infrastructure if the adversaries knows the details.
NEW QUESTION 18
Stopping a function to control further risk to business is called:
- A. Transference
- B. Acceptance
- C. Avoidance
- D. Mitigation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk avoidance is the practice of coming up with alternatives so that the risk in question is not realised.
NEW QUESTION 19
Which of the following is a key tool for enabling and enforcing separation and isolation in multitenancy?
- A. Processors
- B. Control Plane
- C. Networking
- D. Management Plane
Answer: D
Explanation:
The management plane is a key tool for enabling and enforcing separation and isolation in multitenancy.
Limiting who can do what with the APIs is one important means for segregating out customers, or different users within a single tenant. Resources are in the pool, out of the pool, and where they are allocated Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION 20
In cloud services. risks and responsibilities are shared between the cloud provider and customer.
however. which of the following holds true?
- A. Cloud Provider liability is limited to financial responsibility
- B. Cloud Customer has ultimate legal liability for unauthorised and illicit data disclosures
- C. Cloud provider has ultimate legal liability for unauthorised and illicit data disclosures
- D. Cloud Customer liability is limited to financial responsibility
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a shared responsibility model. Data security is responsibility of the cloud consumer and he is legally liable.
NEW QUESTION 21
Which of the following is NOT atypical approach of Key Storage in cloud?
- A. Externally managed
- B. Internally managed
- C. Managed by the Third part
- D. Cloud Service Provider Managed
Answer: D
Explanation:
Remember, two key considerations when doing key management
1) Do not save it alongside data
2) Do not let cloud service provider manage the keys
NEW QUESTION 22
Which one is NOT considered as one of the building blocks of the cloud computing?
- A. CPU
- B. Networking
- C. RAM
- D. Clock
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question is asking for an exception by using "NOT"
The building blocks of cloud computing are composed of random access memory (RAM), the central processing unit(CPU), storage, and networking.
NEW QUESTION 23
ANF and ONF are referred in which of the following ISO standards?
- A. ISO 27005
- B. ISO 27032
- C. ISO 27034-1
- D. ISO 27001
Answer: C
Explanation:
ISO/ IEC 27034-1, "Information Technology - Security Techniques - Application Security," provides one of the most widely accepted set of standards and guidelines for secure application development. IS0/ IEC27034-1 is a comprehensive set of standards that cover many aspects of application development. A few of the key elements include the organizational normative framework (ONF), the application normative framework (ANF), and the application security management process (APSM).
NEW QUESTION 24
The basis for deciding which laws are most appropriate in a situation where conflicting laws exist. refers to:
- A. The Restatement(Second) Conflict of Law
- B. Criminal law
- C. Doctrine of proper law
- D. Tort law
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Restatement(Second) Conflict of Law refers to a collation of developments in common law that help the courts stay up with changes. Many states have conflicting laws. and judges use these restatements to assist them in determining which laws should apply when conflicts occur.
NEW QUESTION 25
Which one of the following is NOT a level of CSA star program?
- A. Self-assessment
- B. Continuous-monitoring program
- C. Third-party attestation
- D. Technology Audit program
Answer: D
Explanation:
"Technology Audit Program" is not one of the levels of CSA star program The three levels of CSA Star program are
1) Self Assessment
2) Third-party Attestment
3) Continuous Monitoring program
NEW QUESTION 26
ISO 27001 certification can be taken as proof to achieve Third-party assessment level in CSA star program.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CSA STAR Certification is a rigorous third-party independent assessment of the security of a cloud service provider. The technology-neutral certification leverages the requirements of the ISO/IEC
27001:2013 management system standard together with the CSA Cloud Controls Matrix.
NEW QUESTION 27
Which of the following leverages virtual network topologies to run more. smaller. and more isolated networks without incurring additional hardware costs that historically make such models prohibitive?
- A. BitVLANS
- B. VLANS
- C. Micro segmentation
- D. Micro LANs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Micro segmentation(also sometimes referred to as hyper segregation) leverages virtual network topologies to run more, smaller, and more isolated networks without incurring additional hardware costs that historically make such models prohibitive. Since the entire networks are defined in software without many of the traditional addressing issues, it is far more feasible to run these multiple, software- defined environments.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION 28
Code execution environments that run within an operating system. sharing and leveraging resources of that operating system is called :
- A. Virtual Machine
- B. Container
- C. Sandbox
- D. Instance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Containers are code execution environments that run within an operating system(for now), sharing and leveraging resources of that operating system. While a VM is a full abstraction of an operating system, a container is a constrained place to run segregated processes while still utilizing the kernel and other capabilities of the base 0S. Multiple containers can run on the same virtual machine or be implemented without the use of VMs at all and run directly on hardware.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION 29
Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?
- A. Access control
- B. Federated Identity Management
- C. Authoritative source
- D. Entitlement
- E. Authentication
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 30
Erin has a picture which he wants to store in the cloud and would like to share its URL so that his friends can see the picture. What type of cloud storage would you recommend for him?
- A. Object Storage
- B. Raw storage
- C. Glacier
- D. Block Storage
Answer: A
Explanation:
Object storage(also referred to as object-based storage) is a general term that refers to the way in which we organize and work with units of storage, called objects.
Every object contains three things:
The data itself: The data can be anything you want to store, from a family photo to a400,000-page manual for assembling an aircraft.
An expandable amount of metadata: The metadata is defined by whoever creates the object storage; it contains contextual information about what the data is, what it should be used for, its confidentiality, or anything else that is relevant to the way in which the data is used.
A globally unique identifier: The identifier is an address given to the object in order for the object to be found over a distributed system. This way, it's possible to find the data without having to know the physical location of the data(which could exist within different parts of a data center or different parts of the world).
NEW QUESTION 31
______ refers to the deeper integration of development and operations teams through better collaboration and communications, with a heavy focus on automating application deployment and infrastructure operations?
- A. Automation
- B. Chef
- C. DevOps
- D. SySOpS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Thats how Devops is referred
NEW QUESTION 32
Amount of risk that the leadership and stakeholders of an organization are willing to accept. is known as:
- A. Risk Avoidance
- B. Residual Risk
- C. Risk Limitation
- D. Risk Tolerance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk tolerance is the amount of risk that the leadership and stakeholders of an organization are willing to accept.
NEW QUESTION 33
Which is the key technology that enables the sharing of resources and makes cloud computing most viable in terms of cost savings?
- A. Virtualization
- B. Content Delivery Networks(CDN)
- C. Software Defined Networking(SDN)
- D. Scalability
Answer: A
Explanation:
Virtualization is the foundational technology that underlies and makes cloud computing possible.
Virtualization is based on the use of powerful host computers to provide a shared resource pool that can be managed to maximize the number of guest operating systems(OSs) running on each host.
NEW QUESTION 34
Which of the following adds abstraction layer on top of networking hardware and decouples network control plane from the data plane?
- A. Virtual Private Networks
- B. Converged Networks
- C. VLANs
- D. Software Defined Networks
Answer: D
Explanation:
Software Defined Networking(SDN):A more complete abstraction layer on top of networking hardware, SDNs decouple the network control plane from the data. This allows us to abstract networking from the traditional limitations of a LAN.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION 35
Which of the following is also knows as white-box test and can be used to find XSS errors, SQL injection.
buffer overflows. unhandled error conditions. and potential backdoors?
- A. Threat Modelling
- B. Static Application Security Testing(SAST)
- C. Static Application Security Testing(SAST)
- D. Dynamic Application Security Testing(DAST)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Static application security testing(SAST) is generally considered a white-box test, where the application test performs an analysis of the application source code, byte code, and binaries without executing the application code. SAST is used to determine coding errors and omissions that are indicative of security vulnerabilities. SAST is often used as a test method while the tool is under development(early in the development lifecycle).
SAST can be used to find XSS errors, SQL injection, buffer overflows, unhandled error conditions, and potential backdoors.
NEW QUESTION 36
Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?
- A. Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.
- B. None of the above.
- C. More physical control over assets and processes.
- D. Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.
- E. Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 37
Which of the vulnerabilities is inherited from general software development practice in PaaS environment?
- A. DDoS
- B. DNS spoofing
- C. Backdoors
- D. Cross
Answer: C
Explanation:
As a general practice of software development. Developer tend to leave backdoors so that they can come back later to fix issues.
NEW QUESTION 38
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