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NEW QUESTION # 19
What is the primary issue pertaining to managing roaming users while utilizing an on-premise solution?
- A. The endpoint is more exposed to threats
- B. The endpoint is absent of the management console
- C. The endpoint fails to receive content update
- D. The endpoint is missing timely policy update
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 20
After editing and saving a policy, an administrator is prompted with the option to apply the edited policy to any assigned device groups.
What happens to the new version of the policy if the administrator declines the option to apply it?
- A. The policy display is returned to edit mode
- B. An unassigned version of the policy is created
- C. The new version of the policy is deleted
- D. The new version of the policy is added to the "in progress" list
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 21
How long does a blacklist task remain in the My Tasks view after its automatic creation?
- A. 180 Days
- B. 60 Days
- C. 30 Days
- D. 90 Days
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which two (2) steps should an administrator take to guard against re-occurring threats? (Select two)
- A. Quarantine affected endpoints
- B. Confirm that daily active and weekly full scans take place on all endpoints
- C. Add endpoints to a high security group and assign a restrictive Antimalware policy to the group
- D. Use Power Eraser to clean endpoint Windows registries
- E. Verify that all endpoints receive scheduled Live-Update content
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 23
An endpoint is offline, and the administrator issues a scan command. What happens to the endpoint when it restarts, if it lacks connectivity?
- A. The system is scanning when started.
- B. The system starts without scanning.
- C. The system downloads the content without scanning.
- D. The system scans after the content update is downloaded.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which file property does SES utilize to search the VirusTotal website for suspicious file information?
- A. File name
- B. File size
- C. File hash
- D. File reputation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 25
What are the Exploit Mitigation security control's mitigation techniques designed to prevent?
- A. Rootkit downloads
- B. File-less attacks
- C. Misbehaving applications
- D. Packed file execution
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 26
An administrator is evaluating an organization's computers for an upcoming SES deployment. Which computer meets the pre-requisites for the SES client?
- A. A computer running Windows 8 with 380 MB of disk space, 2 GB of RAM, and a 2.8 GHz Intel Pentium 4 processor
- B. A computer running Mac OS X 10.8 with 500 MB of disk space, 4 GB of RAM, and an Intel Core 2 Duo 64-bit processor
- C. A computer running Mac OS X 10.14 with 400 MB of disk space, 4 GB of RAM, and an Intel Core 2 Duo 64-bit processor
- D. A computer running Windows 10 with 400 MB of disk space, 2 GB of RAM, and a 2.4 GHz Intel Pentium 4 processor
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which report template includes a summary of risk distribution by devices, users, and groups?
- A. Threat Distribution
- B. Weekly
- C. Device Integrity
- D. Comprehensive
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 28
In which phase of MITRE framework would attackers exploit faults in software to directly tamper with system memory?
- A. Exfiltration
- B. Discovery
- C. Execution
- D. Defense Evasion
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 29
Why would an administrator choose the Server-optimized installation option when creating an installation package?
- A. To add the SES client's Optimize Memory setting to the default server installation.
- B. To limit the Intrusion Prevention policy to use server-only signatures.
- C. To add the Server-optimized Firewall policy
- D. To reduce the SES client's using resources that are required for other server-specific processes.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which SES security control protects against threats that may occur in the Impact phase?
- A. Firewall
- B. Antimalware
- C. Device Control
- D. IPS
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 31
In the ICDm, administrators are assisted by the My Task view. Which automation type creates the tasks within the console?
- A. Artificial Intelligence
- B. Administrator defined rules
- C. Advanced Machine Learning
- D. Machine Learning
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which security threat uses malicious code to destroy evidence, break systems, or encrypt data?
- A. Impact
- B. Persistence
- C. Discovery
- D. Execution
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which report template out format should an administrator utilize to generate graphical reports?
- A. XML
- B. PFD
- C. XML
- D. HTML
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which technique randomizes the e memory address map with Memory Exploit Mitigation?
- A. ROPHEAP
- B. ForceDEP
- C. ASLR
- D. SEHOP
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 35
What happens when an administrator blacklists a file?
- A. The file is assigned to the default Blacklist policy
- B. The file is automatically quarantined
- C. The file is assigned to a chosen Blacklist policy
- D. The file is assigned to the Blacklist task list
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which two (2) skill areas are critical to the success of incident Response Teams (Select two)
- A. Project Management
- B. Incident Management
- C. Threat Analysis
- D. Incident Response
- E. Cyber Intelligence
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION # 37
What are two (2) benefits of a fully cloud managed endpoint protection solution? (Select two)
- A. Increased visibility
- B. Reduced network usage
- C. Reduced 3rd party licensing cost
- D. Increased content update frequency
- E. Reduced database usage
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which two (2) options is an administrator able to use to prevent a file from being fasely detected (Select two)
- A. Assign the file a SHA-256 cryptographic hash
- B. Reduce the Intensive Protection setting of the Antimalware policy
- C. Rename the file
- D. Add the file to a Whitelist policy
- E. Register the file with Symantec's False Positive database
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION # 39
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