[Jun 14, 2025] Get Up-To-Date Real Exam Questions for CV0-003 with New Materials [Q51-Q74]

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[Jun 14, 2025] Get Up-To-Date Real Exam Questions for CV0-003 with New Materials

Updated CV0-003 Certification Exam Sample Questions

NEW QUESTION # 51
A customer recently provisioned a new server on the IaaS. The IP address assigned from the pool resolves to another hostname. Some user traffic is being dumped or is causing slowness because of this issue. Which of the following maintenance activities does the provider need to perform to prevent this issue?

  • A. Use cloud provider tools to remove orphaned resources.
  • B. Update outdated security firewall configurations.
  • C. Initiate resource reclamation.
  • D. Run a script to remove stale DNS entries.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 52
A cloud administrator is setting up a new coworker for API access to a public cloud environment. The administrator creates a new user and gives the coworker access to a collection of automation scripts. When the coworker attempts to use a deployment script, a 403 error is returned. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?

  • A. User permissions are not correct.
  • B. The script has a configuration error.
  • C. Connectivity to the public cloud is down.
  • D. Oversubscription limits have been exceeded.

Answer: A

Explanation:
User permissions are not correct is the most likely cause of the error 403 (Forbidden) that is returned when a coworker attempts to use a deployment script after being set up for API access to a public cloud environment by an administrator. API (Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and interact with each other. API access is the ability to use or access an API to perform certain actions or tasks on a software component or system.
User permissions are the settings or policies that control and restrict what users can do or access on a software component or system. User permissions can affect API access by determining what actions or tasks users can perform using an API on a software component or system. User permissions are not correct if they do not match or align with the intended or expected actions or tasks that users want to perform using an API on a software component or system. User permissions are not correct can cause error 403 (Forbidden), which means that the user does not have the necessary permission or authorization to perform the requested action or task using an API on a software component or system.


NEW QUESTION # 53
A systems administrator wants the VMs on the hypervisor to share CPU resources on the same core when feasible. Which of the following will BEST achieve this goal?

  • A. Increase instructions per cycle.
  • B. Configure CPU passthrough.
  • C. Switch from a Type 1 to a Type 2 hypervisor.
  • D. Oversubscribe CPU resources.
  • E. Enable simultaneous multithreading.

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 54
A company wants to implement business continuity, and the cloud solution architect needs to design the correct solution.
Which of the following will provide the data to measure business continuity? (Choose two.)

  • A. A network diagram
  • B. Playbooks
  • C. A backup and restore
  • D. A recovery time objective
  • E. A service-level agreement
  • F. Automation scripts

Answer: D,E


NEW QUESTION # 55
A cloud administrator is responsible for managing a cloud-based content management solution. According to the security policy, any data that is hosted in the cloud must be protected against data exfiltration. Which of the following solutions should the administrator implement?

  • A. WAF
  • B. FIM
  • C. DLP
  • D. HIDS

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
DLP (Data Loss Prevention) is what the administrator should implement to protect data against data exfiltration in a cloud-based content management solution. Data exfiltration is a process of transferring or stealing data from a system or network without authorization or permission. Data exfiltration can cause data breaches, leaks, or losses that may affect confidentiality, integrity, or availability of data. DLP is a tool or service that monitors and controls data movement and usage within a system or network. DLP can help to prevent data exfiltration by detecting and blocking any unauthorized or suspicious data transfers or activities, as well as enforcing policies and rules for data classification, encryption, access, etc.


NEW QUESTION # 56
A storage administrator requires MPIO and has asked the network administrator to assist by configuring the managed switch appropriately. Which of the following will the network administrator be using?

  • A. VLANs
  • B. iSCSI
  • C. NFSv4
  • D. NFSv2

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 57
A cloud administrator is switching hosting companies and using the same script that was previously used to deploy VMs in the new cloud. The script is returning errors that the command was not found.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the script failure?

  • A. IP address changes
  • B. Server name changes
  • C. Account mismatches
  • D. API version incompatibility

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
An application programming interface (API) is a set of rules or protocols that defines how different systems or applications can communicate or interact with each other. An API version is a specific iteration or release of an API that may have different features or functionalities than previous or subsequent versions. API version incompatibility is the most likely cause of the script failure when switching hosting companies and using the same script that was previously used to deploy VMs in the new cloud, as it can result in errors or failures when trying to execute commands or functions that are not supported or recognized by the new cloud provider's API version. The issue can be resolved by updating or modifying the script to match the new cloud provider's API version. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5


NEW QUESTION # 58
A software company recently moved all of its development testing to a public cloud environment.
The company primarily uses IaaS to deploy and test its code. The company needs the software developers to be more agile and efficient when testing application code. Which of the following backup types should the developers use to BEST ensure the speedy recovery of a system if it is damaged?

  • A. Incremental
  • B. Snapshots
  • C. Full
  • D. Differential

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 59
A cloud administrator needs to establish a secure connection between two different locations.
Which of the following is the BEST option to implement the secure connection?

  • A. HTTPS
  • B. IPSec
  • C. SSH
  • D. TLS

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 60
A systems administrator wants to have near-real-time information on the volume of data being exchanged between an application server and its clients on the Internet.
Which of the following should the systems administrator implement to achieve this objective?

  • A. DLP
  • B. Network flows
  • C. A stateful firewall
  • D. DNSSEC

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 61
A company is concerned about the security of its data repository that contains customer PII. A systems administrator is asked to deploy a security control that will prevent the exfiltration of such dat a. Which of the following should the systems administrator implement?

  • A. WAF
  • B. ADC
  • C. FIM
  • D. DLP

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 62
A cloud engineer is responsible for a legacy web application that runs on an on-premises VM environment. The VM environment is approaching end of life. The engineer needs to migrate the web application to the cloud as quickly as possible because the VM environment has the following limitations:
* The VM environment has a single IOGB disk.
* The VM environment still uses 10Mbps, which leaves a 100Mbps WAN connection underutilized.
* No installation media is available.
Which of the following is the best way to migrate the web application to the cloud?

  • A. Use import/export to import the VM as a snapshot and attach it to a cloud instance.
  • B. Use REST APIs to import an image of the VM into the cloud.
  • C. Use the VM import connector to import the VM into the cloud.
  • D. Use object storage to create a backup of the VM and restore data into the cloud instance.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A VM import connector is a tool that allows you to import virtual machines from your on-premises environment into the cloud using a graphical user interface. This is the fastest and easiest way to migrate a legacy web application without requiring installation media or changing the configuration of the VM. The VM import connector can also handle the disk size and network bandwidth limitations of the on-premises VM environment. Reference: EC2 VM Import Connector | AWS News Blog, Import a VMware Virtual Machine to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure, CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Deployment, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, execute and implement solutions using appropriate cloud migration tools and methods.


NEW QUESTION # 63
A cloud administrator is performing automated deployment of cloud infrastructure for clients. The administrator notices discrepancies from the baseline in the configuration of infrastructure that was deployed to a new client. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

  • A. The deployment template was modified.
  • B. The deployment user account changed
  • C. The deployment was done by a different cloud administrator.
  • D. The deployment was done to a different resource group.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A deployment template is a file that defines the resources and configurations that are required to deploy a cloud solution1. A deployment template can be used to automate the deployment of cloud infrastructure for clients, ensuring consistency and efficiency2. However, if the deployment template was modified, either intentionally or accidentally, it could cause discrepancies from the baseline in the configuration of infrastructure that was deployed to a new client. For example, the template could have different parameters, values, or dependencies that affect the outcome of the deployment3. Therefore, the most likely cause of the issue is that the deployment template was modified.
References:
1: What is a template? - Azure Resource Manager | Microsoft Docs3
2: Automate cloud deployments with Azure Resource Manager templates - Learn | Microsoft Docs3
3: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Exam Objectives, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, deploy and test a cloud solution


NEW QUESTION # 64
A company has decided to scale its e-commerce application from its corporate datacenter to a commercial cloud provider to meet an anticipated increase in demand during an upcoming holiday.
The majority of the application load takes place on the application server under normal conditions. For this reason, the company decides to deploy additional application servers into a commercial cloud provider using the on-premises orchestration engine that installs and configures common software and network configurations.
The remote computing environment is connected to the on-premises datacenter via a site-to-site IPSec tunnel. The external DNS provider has been configured to use weighted round-robin routing to load balance connections from the Internet.
During testing, the company discovers that only 20% of connections completed successfully.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the network architecture and supporting documents and fulfill these requirements:
Part 1:
Part 2:
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Part 1:
Cloud Hybrid Network Diagram








Part 2:
Only select a maximum of TWO options from the multiple choice question

Answer:

Explanation:
Change the Address Space on Router2
Update the PSK (Pre-shared key in Router2)


NEW QUESTION # 65
A company that performs passive vulnerability scanning at its transit VPC has detected a vulnerability related to outdated web-server software on one of its public subnets. Which of the following can the company use to verify if this is a true positive with the least effort and cost? (Select two).

  • A. A red-team exercise
  • B. A credentialed scan
  • C. An agent-based scan
  • D. A port scan
  • E. A blue-team exercise
  • F. A network-based scan
  • G. Unknown environment penetration testing

Answer: B,F


NEW QUESTION # 66
A systems administrator is trying to reduce storage consumption. Which of the following file types would benefit the MOST from compression?

  • A. System files
  • B. Mail database
  • C. Relational database
  • D. User backups

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
User backups are the file type that would benefit the most from compression to reduce storage consumption.
Compression is a process of reducing the size of data by removing redundant or unnecessary information or using algorithms to encode data more efficiently. Compression can save storage space and bandwidth, but it may also affect the quality or performance of data depending on the compression method and ratio. User backups are typically large files that contain various types of data, such as documents, images, videos, etc., that can be compressed without significant loss of quality or functionality.


NEW QUESTION # 67
A systems administrator is configuring RAID for a new server. This server will host files for users and replicate to an identical server. While redundancy is necessary, the most important need is to maximize storage.
Which of the following RAID types should the administrator choose?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
RAID 50 is a type of RAID level that combines RAID 5 and RAID 0 to create a nested RAID configuration.
RAID 50 consists of two or more RAID 5 arrays that are striped together using RAID 0. RAID 50 can provide redundancy, fault tolerance, and high performance for large data sets. RAID 50 can also maximize storage, as it has a higher usable capacity than other RAID levels with similar features, such as RAID 6 or RAID 10. The administrator should choose RAID 50 to configure a new server that will host files for users and replicate to an identical server, as it can meet the needs of redundancy and storage maximization. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 1.4


NEW QUESTION # 68
A systems administrator is creating a playbook to run tasks against a server on a set schedule.
Which of the following authentication techniques should the systems administrator use within the playbook?

  • A. Use the server's root credentials.
  • B. Create a service account on the server.
  • C. Use the administrator's SSO credentials.
  • D. Hard-code the password within the playbook.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 69
A SaaS provider wants to maintain maximum availability for its service.
Which of the following should be implemented to attain the maximum SLA?

  • A. A cold site
  • B. An active-active site
  • C. A hot site
  • D. A warm site

Answer: B

Explanation:
An active-active site is a type of disaster recovery (DR) site that runs simultaneously with the primary site and handles part of the normal workload or traffic. An active-active site can help maintain maximum availability for a SaaS service, as it can provide load balancing, redundancy, and failover capabilities for the SaaS service in case of an outage or disruption at the primary site. An active-active site can also improve performance and scalability, as it can distribute the workload or traffic across multiple sites and handle increased demand or peak periods. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5


NEW QUESTION # 70
A marketing team is using a SaaS-based service to send emails to large groups of potential customers. The internally managed CRM system is configured to generate a list of target customers automatically on a weekly basis, and then use that list to send emails to each customer as part of a marketing campaign. Last week, the first email campaign sent emails successfully to 3,000 potential customers. This week, the email campaign attempted to send out 50,000 emails, but only 10,000 were sent.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for not sending all the emails?

  • A. Bandwidth limitation
  • B. Misconfigured auto-scaling
  • C. Incorrect billing account
  • D. API request limit

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
An API request limit is a restriction on the number of requests that can be made to a web service or application programming interface (API) within a certain time period. API request limits are often used by SaaS-based services to control the usage and traffic of their customers and prevent overloading or abuse of their resources.
An API request limit can cause a failure to send all the emails if the marketing team exceeds the number of requests allowed by the SaaS-based service in a week. The service may reject or block any requests that go beyond the limit, resulting in fewer emails being sent than expected. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5


NEW QUESTION # 71
An administrator recently provisioned a file server in the cloud. Based on financial considerations, the administrator has a limited amount of disk space. Which of the following will help control the amount of space that is being used?

  • A. Thick provisioning
  • B. Software-defined storage
  • C. Network file system
  • D. User quotas

Answer: D

Explanation:
User quotas are what will help control the amount of space that is being used by a file server in the cloud that has a limited amount of disk space due to financial considerations. User quotas are the limits or restrictions that are imposed on the amount of space that each user can use or consume on a file server or storage device. User quotas can help to control the amount of space that is being used by:
Preventing or reducing wastage or overuse of space by users who may store unnecessary or redundant files or data on the file server or storage device.
Ensuring fair and equal distribution or allocation of space among users who may have different needs or demands for space on the file server or storage device.
Monitoring and managing the usage or consumption of space by users who may need to be notified or alerted when they reach or exceed their quota on the file server or storage device.


NEW QUESTION # 72
A cloud administrator is building a new VM for machine-learning training. The developer requesting the VM has stated that the machine will need a full GPU dedicated to it.
Which of the following configuration options would BEST meet this requirement?

  • A. Virtual GPU
  • B. Passthrough GPU
  • C. Shared GPU
  • D. External GPU

Answer: B

Explanation:
GPU pass-through is used when one or more GPUs are dedicated to a single VM. Pass-through allows the VM to address the GPU directly without having to go through the hypervisor stack. This significantly improves performance for the application. Pass-through is used for very GPU- intensive workloads such as deep learning, artificial intelligence, and data analytics.


NEW QUESTION # 73
A company is building a new server cluster to host applications for external clients. The company wants to ensure high availability and maximum throughput, and requests that the server administrators configure teamed interfaces on all servers in the cluster. In this scenario, a teamed interface refers to:

  • A. elasticity on demand
  • B. resource pooling
  • C. a TCP offload engine
  • D. link aggregation

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 74
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