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NEW QUESTION 23
Before uploading Estimated Standalone Selling Prices (SSP), you must populate a spreadsheet with some required data.
In addition to the SSP Value (price) and Currency, which two are required?
- A. Item Identifier
- B. Pricing Dimension
- C. Unit of Measure
- D. Performance Obligation Template
- E. SSP Type
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Explanation
https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/r13_update17b/financialscs_gs/FAFRM/FAFRM2340000.htm#FAFRM2339998
NEW QUESTION 24
Given you can optionally use pricing bands to create standalone selling prices, which setting enables you to use pricing bands?
- A. when a value set segment label of Set Band is used
- B. when a source document type is enabled to use pricing bands
- C. when a pricing dimension structure Instance Is enabled for pricing bands
- D. when a pricing dimension structure is enabled for pricing bands
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 25
What are two major changes when comparing the new revenue recognition guidance under ASC 606 and IFRS
15 versus the old standard?
- A. Revenue can be recognized for performance obligations only using the "Point in Time" approach.
- B. Expected consideration value is applicable to all industries.
- C. Pricing estimates cannot be used In the absence of pricing data.
- D. Revenue and performance obligation liabilities are not dependent on billing.
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION 26
Which method is used to allocate total transaction price across performance obligations in Revenue Management?
- A. Two Step Allocation Method
- B. Inverted Allocation Method
- C. Alternative Allocation Method
- D. Relative Allocation Method
- E. Residual Allocation Method
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 27
Which two are intended uses for the Standalone Selling Price Report Dashboard?
- A. Review performance obligations by effective period.
- B. Drill down to data used to derive standalone selling prices.
- C. Analyze standalone selling prices for one or multiple effective periods.
- D. Monitor transaction price calculation and allocation.
- E. Diagnose revenue price profile.
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION 28
A corporation wants to use any potential values In a segment of their Pricing Dimension Structure, as long as those values do not exceed a length of 50 characters.
Which validation type must be selected when defining this Value Set?
- A. Independent
- B. Dependent
- C. Format Only
- D. Table
- E. Subset
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 29
You define a Contract Identification Rule that uses the following source document attributes to match transaction lines:
Bill-to Customer Party Identifier
Extensible Header Character Attribute 4
Based the data displayed:
How many contracts will be created In Revenue Management?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 30
A business entity (your client) sells a computer, monitor, keyboard, and mouse as a single package to consumers. The entity has identified that this bundle is a distinct performance obligation. How should you configure Revenue management to ensure that these items are grouped into one performance obligation?
- A. By defining a Contact Identification Rule.
- B. By defining a Performance Obligation Template.
- C. By defining a Standalone Selling Price Profile.
- D. By defining a Revenue Item Group
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 31
Given Revenue Management uses the Subledger Accounting engine to create journal entries from customer contracts, which Is NOT a predefined Accounting Class?
- A. Contract Price Variance
- B. Contract Clearing
- C. Contract Revenue
- D. Contract Asset
- E. Contract Liability
- F. Contract Expense
Answer: F
NEW QUESTION 32
A Corporation has a business requirement to build a custom Revenue Management report that users could run from the Scheduled Processes page.
Which reporting tool must be used to address this business requirement?
- A. Business Intelligence Publisher
- B. Reporting Studio
- C. Smart View
- D. Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 33
Which configuration component is Source Document Type
- A. Performance Obligation Identification Rules
- B. Revenue Management System Options
- C. Revenue Price Profile
- D. Contract Identification Rules
- E. Performance Obligation Template
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 34
How can you access an implementation task in Functional Setup Manager. (choose 3)
- A. By navigating from the Implementation Project
- B. By navigating from the Welcome Springboard
- C. By searching
- D. By navigation to an offering's functional area
Answer: A,C,D
NEW QUESTION 35
After defining a pricing dimension structure for a customer, you must define a pricing dimension structure instance.
Which two attributes on the structure instance are inherited from the structure definition?
- A. the Displayed option
- B. whether Dynamic Combination Creation Allowed is enabled
- C. the Query Required option
- D. the value sets
- E. the shape: Same number of segments and order
Answer: B,E
NEW QUESTION 36
What is a Standalone Selling Price (SSP)?
- A. the list price
- B. the price you would use if you sold to a customer separately
- C. the sum of the SSPs of the components
- D. the average of your bundled price
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 37
When deciding how to set up the system to recognize revenue, it is important to understand the extent of revenue deferral and the subsequent timing of revenue recognition. Which two statements are true when you consider that recognition depends on the nature of the contingency? (Choose two)
- A. Payment-based contingencies do not always require payment before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized
- B. Post-billing customer acceptance clauses must expire (implicit acceptance), or be manually accepted (explicit acceptance), before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized.
- C. Pre-billing customer acceptance clauses require the recording of customer acceptance in the feeder system, or its expiration, before importing into Receivables for invoicing. Customer acceptance or its expiration must occur before the contingency can be removed and the order can be imported into Receivables for invoicing.
- D. Time-based contingencies must not expire before the contingency can be removed and revenue recognized
- E. Time-based contingencies can expire, but the contingency will have to be removed manually before the revenue is recognized if payment is not due yet
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION 38 
What is the correct match sequence of the descriptions A, B and C against the titles?
- A. C, B, A
- B. B, A, C
- C. B, C, A
- D. A, B, C
- E. A, C, B
- F. C, A, B
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 39
Your customer ships machines, and can recognize revenue for each machine after the machine has been delivered to a customer without waiting for complete satisfaction of an entire performance obligation. How would you configure Satisfaction Method (SM) and Satisfaction Measurement Model (SMM) in Revenue Management to recognize revenue for these performance obligations at a point in time?
- A. by setting SM to "Allow Partial" and SMM to "Quantity"
- B. by setting SM to "Allow Partial" and SMM to "Period"
- C. by setting SM to "Requires Complete" and SMM to "Quantity"
- D. by setting SM to "Requires Complete" and SMM to "Period"
- E. by setting SM to "Requires Complete" and SMM to "Percent"
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 40
What does the creation of an allocation allow you to determine?
- A. the fair value of each performance obligation
- B. the ability not to revise previously reported revenue for revision, corrections, and other changes
- C. an allocation of the expected consideration over the performance obligations as if you had sold them separately
- D. the maximum amount of revenue you can recognize soonest, postponing the minimum until later
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/financialscs_gs/FAOFC/FAOFC2288367.htm
NEW QUESTION 41
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