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NEW QUESTION # 20
A newly appointed board member with cybersecurity knowledge wants the board of directors to receive a quarterly report detailing the number of incidents that impacted the organization. The systems administrator is creating a way to present the data to the board of directors. Which of the following should the systems administrator use?
- A. Vulnerability scans
- B. Dashboard
- C. Packet captures
- D. Metadata
Answer: B
Explanation:
A dashboard is a graphical user interface that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators, metrics, and trends related to security events and incidents. A dashboard can help the board of directors to understand the number and impact ofincidents that affected the organization in a given period, as well as the status and effectiveness of the security controls and processes. A dashboard can also allow the board of directors to drill down into specific details or filter the data by various criteria12.
A packet capture is a method of capturing and analyzing the network traffic that passes through a device or a network segment. A packet capture can provide detailed information about the source, destination, protocol, and content of each packet, but it is not a suitable way to present a summary of incidents to the board of directors13.
A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses and exposures in a system or a network that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability scan can help the organization to prioritize and remediate the risks and improve the security posture, but it is not a relevant way to report the number of incidents that occurred in a quarter14.
Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, structure, or context. Metadata can provide useful information about the characteristics and properties of data, but it is not a meaningful way to communicate the impact and frequency of incidents to the board of directors. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3722: SIEM Dashboards - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 4.3, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3464:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 362. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97.
NEW QUESTION # 21
An employee receives a text message that appears to have been sent by the payroll department and is asking for credential verification. Which of the following social engineering techniques are being attempted? (Choose two.)
- A. Impersonation
- B. Typosquatting
- C. Vishing
- D. Misinformation
- E. Phishing
- F. Smishing
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
F) Misinformation is a type of social engineering technique that involves spreading false or misleading information to influence the beliefs, opinions, or actions of the target. Misinformation can be used to manipulate public perception, create confusion, damage reputation, or promote an agenda . Misinformation is not related to text messages or credential verification.
Reference = 1: What is Smishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 2: Smishing - Wikipedia 3: Impersonation Attacks: What Are They and How Do You Protect Against Them? 4: Impersonation - Wikipedia 5: What is Typosquatting? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 6: Typosquatting - Wikipedia 7: What is Phishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 8: Phishing - Wikipedia 9: What is Vishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky : Vishing - Wikipedia : What is Misinformation? | Definition and Examples | Britannica : Misinformation - Wikipedia Explanation:
Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses text messages (SMS) to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Smishing messages often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or service providers, and use urgent or threatening language to persuade the recipients to take action12. In this scenario, the text message that claims to be from the payroll department is an example of smishing.
Impersonation is a type of social engineering technique that involves pretending to be someone else, such as an authority figure, a trusted person, or a colleague, to gain the trust or cooperation of the target. Impersonation can be done through various channels, such as phone calls, emails, text messages, or in-person visits, and can be used to obtain information, access, or money from the victim34. In this scenario, the text message that pretends to be from the payroll department is an example of impersonation.
A) Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domain names that are similar to popular or well-known websites, but with intentional spelling errors or different extensions. Typosquatting aims to exploit the common mistakes that users make when typing web addresses, and redirect them to malicious or fraudulent sites that may steal their information, install malware, or display ads56. Typosquatting is not related to text messages or credential verification.
B) Phishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses fraudulent emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Phishing emails often mimic the appearance and tone of legitimate organizations, such as banks, retailers, or service providers, and use deceptive or urgent language to persuade the recipients to take action78. Phishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.
D) Vishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses voice calls to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. Vishing calls often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as law enforcement, government agencies, or technical support, and use scare tactics or false promises to persuade the recipients to comply9 . Vishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user?
- A. OCSP
- B. CA
- C. CRC
- D. CSR
Answer: A
Explanation:
OCSP stands for Online Certificate Status Protocol. It is a protocol that allows applications to check the revocation status of a certificate in real-time. It works by sending a query to an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains a database of revoked certificates. The OCSP responder returns a response that indicates whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or unknown. OCSP is faster and more efficient than downloading and parsing Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are large files that contain the serial numbers of all revoked certificates issued by a Certificate Authority (CA). Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 337 1
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following are cases in which an engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device? (Select two).
- A. The device is moved to a different location in the enterprise.
- B. The device is configured to use cleartext passwords.
- C. The device is moved to an isolated segment on the enterprise network.
- D. The device has been moved from a production environment to a test environment.
- E. The device is unable to receive authorized updates.
- F. The device's encryption level cannot meet organizational standards.
Answer: F
Explanation:
Explanation
An engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device when the device poses a security risk or a compliance violation to the enterprise environment. A device that cannot meet the encryption standards or receive authorized updates is vulnerable to attacks and breaches, and may expose sensitive data or compromise network integrity. Therefore, such a device should be removed from the network and replaced with a more secure and updated one.
References
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2, page 671 CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2, Question 16, page 512
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data?
- A. SQL injection
- B. Cross-site scripting
- C. Side loading
- D. Buffer overflow
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
= SQL injection is a type of attack that enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data in a database. SQL stands for Structured Query Language, which is a language used to communicate with databases. By injecting malicious SQL statements into an input field, an attacker can bypass authentication, access sensitive information, modify or delete data, or execute commands on the server.
SQL injection is one of the most common and dangerous web application
vulnerabilities. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 195. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page
8.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer's PII?
- A. SCAP
- B. Antivirus
- C. Net Flow
- D. DLP
Answer: D
Explanation:
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer's PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 78. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5, page 11.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following is a hardware-specific vulnerability?
- A. SQL injection
- B. Cross-site scripting
- C. Buffer overflow
- D. Firmware version
Answer: D
Explanation:
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in a hardware device, such as a router, a printer, or a BIOS chip. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and it can be updated or modified by the manufacturer or the user. Firmware version is a hardware-specific vulnerability, as it can expose the device to security risks if it is outdated, corrupted, or tampered with. An attacker can exploit firmware vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access, modify device settings, install malware, or cause damage to the device or the network. Therefore, it is important to keep firmware updated and verify its integrity and authenticity. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 67. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1, page 10.
NEW QUESTION # 27
After reviewing the following vulnerability scanning report:
Server:192.168.14.6
Service: Telnet
Port: 23 Protocol: TCP
Status: Open Severity: High
Vulnerability: Use of an insecure network protocol
A security analyst performs the following test:
nmap -p 23 192.168.14.6 -script telnet-encryption
PORT STATE SERVICE REASON
23/tcp open telnet syn-ack
I telnet encryption:
| _ Telnet server supports encryption
Which of the following would the security analyst conclude for this reported vulnerability?
- A. It is a false positive.
- B. It is considered noise.
- C. Compensating controls exist.
- D. A rescan is required.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A false positive is a result that indicates a vulnerability or a problem when there is none. In this case, the vulnerability scanning report shows that the telnet service on port 23 is open and uses an insecure network protocol. However, the security analyst performs a test using nmap and a script that checks for telnet encryption support. The result shows that the telnet server supports encryption, which means that the data transmitted between the client and the server can be protected from eavesdropping. Therefore, the reported vulnerability is a false positive and does not reflect the actual security posture of the server. The security analyst should verify the encryption settings of the telnet server and client and ensure that they are configured properly3. References: 3: Telnet Protocol - Can You Encrypt Telnet?
NEW QUESTION # 28
An organization is leveraging a VPN between its headquarters and a branch location. Which of the following is the VPN protecting?
- A. Data in use
- B. Data sovereignty
- C. Geographic restrictions
- D. Data in transit
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data in transit is data that is moving from one location to another, such as over a network or through the air. Data in transit is vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. A VPN (virtual private network) is a technology that protects data in transit by creating a secure tunnel between two endpoints and encrypting the data that passes through it2.
NEW QUESTION # 29
A software development manager wants to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company. Which of the following options is the most appropriate?
- A. Testing input validation on the user input fields
- B. Performing static code analysis on the software
- C. Ensuring secure cookies are use
- D. Performing code signing on company-developed software
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Code signing is a technique that uses cryptography to verify the authenticity and integrity of the code created by the company. Code signing involves applying a digital signature to the code using a private key that only the company possesses. The digital signature can be verified by anyone who has the corresponding public key, which can be distributed through a trusted certificate authority. Code signing can prevent unauthorized modifications, tampering, or malware injection into the code, and it can also assure the users that the code is from a legitimate source. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 74. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following vulnerabilities is exploited when an attacker overwrites a register with a malicious address?
- A. SQL injection
- B. VM escape
- C. Race condition
- D. Buffer overflow
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A buffer overflow is a vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. A register is a small storage area in the CPU that holds temporary data or instructions. An attacker can exploit a buffer overflow to overwrite a register with a malicious address that points to a shellcode, which is a piece of code that gives the attacker control over the system. By doing so, the attacker can bypass the normal execution flow of the application and execute arbitrary commands.
References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Threats, Attacks, and Vulnerabilities, Section 2.3: Application Attacks, Page 76 1; Buffer Overflows - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.3 2
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?
- A. SLA
- B. MOU
- C. MOA
- D. SOW
Answer: A
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.
References:
* Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under "About the exam", bullet point 3:
* "Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance."
* CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: "Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider."
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following security control types does an acceptable use policy best represent?
- A. Preventive
- B. Corrective
- C. Compensating
- D. Detective
Answer: A
Explanation:
An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules that govern how users can access and use a corporate network or the internet. The AUP helps companies minimize their exposure to cyber security threats and limit other risks. The AUP also serves as a notice to users about what they are not allowed to do and protects the company against misuse of their network. Users usually have to acknowledge that they understand and agree to the rules before accessing the network1.
An AUP best represents a preventive security control type, because it aims to deter or stop potential security incidents from occurring in the first place. A preventive control is proactive and anticipates possible threats and vulnerabilities, and implements measures to prevent them from exploiting or harming the system or the data. A preventive control can be physical, technical, or administrative in nature2.
Some examples of preventive controls are:
* Locks, fences, or guards that prevent unauthorized physical access to a facility or a device
* Firewalls, antivirus software, or encryption that prevent unauthorized logical access to a network or a system
* Policies, procedures, or training that prevent unauthorized or inappropriate actions or behaviors by users or employees An AUP is an example of an administrative preventive control, because it defines the policies and procedures that users must follow to ensure the security and proper use of the network and the IT resources. An AUP can prevent users from engaging in activities that could compromise the security, performance, or availability of the network or the system, such as:
* Downloading or installing unauthorized or malicious software
* Accessing or sharing sensitive or confidential information without authorization or encryption
* Using the network or the system for personal, illegal, or unethical purposes
* Bypassing or disabling security controls or mechanisms
* Connecting unsecured or unapproved devices to the network
By enforcing an AUP, a company can prevent or reduce the likelihood of security breaches, data loss, legal liability, or reputational damage caused by user actions or inactions3.
References = 1: How to Create an Acceptable Use Policy - CoreTech, 2: [Security Control Types: Preventive, Detective, Corrective, and Compensating], 3: Why You Need A Corporate Acceptable Use Policy - CompTIA
NEW QUESTION # 33
A security manager created new documentation to use in response to various types of security incidents.
Which of the following is the next step the manager should take?
- A. Securely store the documents on an air-gapped network.
- B. Conduct a tabletop exercise with the team.
- C. Review the documents' data classification policy.
- D. Set the maximum data retention policy.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the effectiveness of a security incident response plan. It involves gathering the relevant stakeholders and walking through the steps of the plan, identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A tabletop exercise is a good way to validate the documentation created by the security manager and ensure that the team is prepared for various types of security incidents.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 2841. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 2842.
NEW QUESTION # 34
A company's legal department drafted sensitive documents in a SaaS application and wants to ensure the documents cannot be accessed by individuals in high-risk countries. Which of the following is themosteffective way to limit this access?
- A. Geolocation policy
- B. Data sovereignty regulation
- C. Encryption
- D. Data masking
Answer: A
Explanation:
A geolocation policy is a policy that restricts or allows access to data or resources based on the geographic location of the user or device. A geolocation policy can be implemented using various methods, such as IP address filtering, GPS tracking, or geofencing. A geolocation policy can help the company's legal department to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive documents from individuals in high-risk countries12.
The other options are not effective ways to limit access based on location:
Data masking: This is a technique of obscuring or replacing sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data. Data masking can protect the privacy and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location3.
Encryption: This is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can protect the integrity and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Encryption can also be bypassed by attackers who have the decryption key or method4.
Data sovereignty regulation: This is a set of laws or rules that govern the storage, processing, and transfer of data within a specific jurisdiction or country. Data sovereignty regulation can affect the availability and compliance of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Data sovereignty regulation can also vary depending on the country or region.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Account Policies - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.7, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1004: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 101. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 102.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A company is planning a disaster recovery site and needs to ensure that a single natural disaster would not result in the complete loss of regulated backup dat a. Which of the following should the company consider?
- A. Load balancing
- B. Geographic dispersion
- C. Platform diversity
- D. Hot site
Answer: B
Explanation:
Geographic dispersion is the practice of having backup data stored in different locations that are far enough apart to minimize the risk of a single natural disaster affecting both sites. This ensures that the company can recover its regulated data in case of a disaster at the primary site. Platform diversity, hot site, and load balancing are not directly related to the protection of backup data from natural disasters. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 449; Disaster Recovery Planning: Geographic Diversity
NEW QUESTION # 36
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